This is a question sent in by Leslie on the “Ask Aaron Anything” link:
| 1 Cor 15 says, “Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?”
I’m confused by this, because we don’t baptize for the dead – do we? I know Mormon’s do, and I learned a little bit about that when I studied with them, and the notion was always really strange to me. What does this mean? |
My Answer:
Ok, this is a question that is widely debated but to answer it you have to look at context. What Paul is addressing with the church of corinth? He is trying to address their false belief that Jesus did not raise from the dead. The resurection of Jesus is of huge importance to the Gospel. If the resurrection is not true, then we can forget about the future and live as we please! Paul throughout 1 Corinthians 15 is making a case that Jesus rose from the dead. So when He comes to verse 29 he is continuing this line of reasoning.
What does it mean to be “baptized for the dead”? Some take this to mean “proxy baptism,” where a believer is baptized on behalf of a dead relative; but we find no such teaching in the New Testament. In the second century, there were some heretical groups that practiced “vicarious baptism,” but the church at large has never accepted the practice. To begin with, salvation is a personal matter that is accomplished by the work of Jesus on the cross. He is our mediator not another man being baptized for you; so the belief goes against the Gospel.
Paul teaches in Rom. 6:3–5 that Christians are buried with Christ in baptism and raised to walk in newness of life, and that they are united to him in his death and resurrection. That spiritual experience to which water baptism points is not simply a reference to ‘the soul’ but to the whole person, including his or her body. The early greek fathers concluded on this verse that Paul was asking what is the point of undergoing baptism at all, which was on behalf of bodies—the phrase for the dead lit. ‘on behalf of the dead [bodies]’ is repeated twice—if they will simply disappear.
So my basic conclusion: Paul is arguing his point with a question. Why should we be baptized if we believe that Jesus is still dead and our bodies will simply disappear? The basic reason we are baptized is to show that we are dying with Christ and being raised with Christ and if we do not believe in the resurection then what is the point of baptism?
Up to 200 different explanations have been given of this verse! There are other scholars that conclude other things on this debated scripture but most if not all of the “Christian” theologians will conclude that He is NOT talking about baptism by proxy for the dead, it is out of sync with the gospel. So if you believe one of the other 199 explanations on this text that is fine with me, just do not build a doctrine of “baptism by proxy” on this one verse because it is out of step with the gospel.
Some of the recources I used to answer this question:
The Bible Knowledge Commentary
The Bible Exposition Commentary
That all made perfect sense. I'm glad to know that I had a partial grasp in the right direction as to what this meant – because I KNEW that baptism by proxy was not doctrinal.
Thanks for your insight, PA, and for putting up with my impatience LOL – you are appreciated!
I am not sure it made perfect sense but maybe half sense… LOL. No thank you for your patience and I am sorry it took so long to answer. Good question though and real interesting study for anyone that wants to do more in depth study.